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Religious Discrimination in the Islamic Republic

Kamangir | October 1, 2007 | Category Human Rights, Iran, Islam, Islamic Republic

kafar.jpgThis is the text of the scan of what appears to be a Fatwa issued by the Supreme Leader,

[Question:] In a Zoroastrian family, who live in the Islamic Republic, one child is converted to Islam. After the death of the parents, what’s the verdict on the assets of the family? [who will inherit them]

[Fatwa:] In the existence of a Muslim inheritor, the infidel does not receive anything.

Signed: Khameneii

It is worth mentioning that Zoroastrian faith is one of the few recognized in the Iranian Constitution. Bahaiism, for example, is one of the many which are not.

Reader's Comments

  1. >> Musulmaan-i Mumbaaii... An Indian Muslims View [blog] | October 2nd, 2007 at 2:36 am

    The Iranian laws in this matter are archaic. Sadly, many will come to assume that Islamic Republic laws always coincide with true Islamic laws.

  2. Ahwazi | October 2nd, 2007 at 9:04 am

    If you live in a democracy everyone has equal rights. In a state run by religious figures and religious laws the rights of minority religions can constantly be violated.

    You say “Iranian laws are archaic”, just for your information Iranian laws before the Islamic Republic gave all religions and all women equal protection under the law. And before Islam and even Zartosht Iranian law provided universal human rights.

  3. >> Musulmaan-i Mumbaaii... An Indian Muslims View [blog] | October 2nd, 2007 at 9:47 am

    From what I’ve been told, the Islamic Republic is the Iranian Government, so yes, the Iranian laws are archaic. I am not talking about Cyrus’s Iran or Zoroastrian Iran or Iran 50 thousand years ago.

  4. Ahwazi | October 2nd, 2007 at 10:10 am

    Actually I am not talking about 50 thousand years ago. I am talking about 28 years ago when women could be judges and can’t be now.

  5. ella | October 2nd, 2007 at 10:40 am

    MiM

    What true Islamic laws you are talking about?
    The laws of sharia are as archaic as the laws of IRI. There is even no the same sharia law for all Muslims because depending on which school of Islam one follows the sharia law differs.

  6. Tom | October 2nd, 2007 at 11:36 am

    It’s a sad day when we still argue over whether everyone deserves to be equal.

  7. Priyank | October 2nd, 2007 at 3:03 pm

    Maybe you know this, but Zoroastrians are called Parsis in India? And the story of how they entered India ages back is very interesting.

  8. Chaya | October 2nd, 2007 at 3:12 pm

    Isn’t Zoroastrianism the original religion of the Persian? Can someone explain to me what it’s about?

  9. Ahwazi | October 2nd, 2007 at 8:16 pm

    Zoroaster was the pre-Islamic religion in Iran. There are still a community who lives in Iran but ofcourse lots live in India (as Priyank mentioned are called Parsis) and also in North America and Australia. In the Islamic Republic at the end of the day Shia Islam trumps everyone else (including SUnnis) in the court.

  10. >> Musulmaan-i Mumbaaii... An Indian Muslims View [blog] | October 2nd, 2007 at 8:26 pm

    Ella: How many schools of Islam are there? Sharia law is something that was interpreted by scholars, not specified in Quran

  11. ella | October 3rd, 2007 at 12:45 am

    MiM
    So now you ask me how many schools of Islam are there? You should know that by heart.
    As for the laws specified in Qu’ran, which laws are you talking about? All of them? The laws specified in later surahs (Madinan)? The law specified in earlier surahs (Meccan)? Some of them do contradict each other, you know.
    So which “true Islamic law” you are talking about?

  12. >> Musulmaan-i Mumbaaii... An Indian Muslims View [blog] | October 3rd, 2007 at 4:15 am

    Missing the point…. as usual

  13. Roman Kalik | October 3rd, 2007 at 4:20 am

    MiM, do you speak then of Shari’a being improperly implemented and stagnated, as it has not been opened for debate by current-day Muslim scholars?

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